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formeng asked in Society & CultureLanguages · 1 decade ago

Dejé caer and se me cayó Spanish experts.?

A friend tells me that "Dejé caer las gafas" and "Se me cayó las gafas" mean the same. I'm curious if perhaps "dejé caer" is more akin to the English to let go. That is, perhaps unavoidably, but with intention. And if "Se me cayó" means without intention. Obviously, neither of us knows the subtleties of Spanish. So, thanks to you experts in advance.

formeng

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favourite answer

    A native speaker should answer this, but I think your understanding is correct. If you said, "Dejé caer las gafas", then someone could respond, "well why'd you do that?" If you said, "Se me cayó las gafas", the more likely response would be, "oh, I'm sorry -- were they damaged?"

    In general, "se me [something bad]" connotes that something bad happened to you. "Se me olvidó devolver el libro" implies that it just totally slipped your mind and you really had intended to return the book. "Me olvidé de devolver el libro" takes a bit more responsibility for having forgotten. You also see this with romper, perder, and some other verbs.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    No. They don't mean the same thing.

    Dejé caer means I dropped.

    Se me cayó means it fell.

    Slightly different shades of meaning. There is a bit more volition involved in the first. As in, it was in my hand and slipped out or I let it go. The second could be...I put it down on the table, and it wasn't stable enough, so...it fell.

  • 1 decade ago

    Se me cayéron las gafas ( por accidente) = My glasses fall off ( by accident )

    Dejé caer las gafas = I let them (glasses) fall ..CAN BE THE SAME = BY ACCIDENT (can be on purpose of course,but in this case it sounds like by accident in Spanish!)

    eg: Dejé que se me cayeron las gafas por accidente.

    Source(s): Spanish fluent
  • haper
    Lv 4
    5 years ago

    the two meanings artwork to that end. honestly, that's the pronoun "un" ("a") however the meaning is an identical. you ought to assert: "Un minuto, por choose" = One minute, please. And it must be "a million minute" or "a minute" by fact that's an expression. that's not precisely a million minute - it basically potential which you will desire to anticipate a quick mutually as. It additionally occurs in English. you ought to apply an prolonged sentence and say: "please anticipate a 2d", or "i'm going to be there in a minute", could no longer you? And it works too considering you do no longer propose precisely a million minute. basically like in Spanish. honestly, i think of contained concerning "one 2d" in English, it does not consult with the extensive form the two. it is likewise the observe "one" used as a pronoun, that's singular, so it potential a million besides... yet whilst it have been plural, you does no longer use 2 or 3 ("anticipate 2 moments..."), you will possibly use "some", does no longer you?

  • 1 decade ago

    I agree with you, based on what a native spanish speaker (Dominican) explained to me. He said the passive construction is needed to show that it wasn't intentional, and that if you use the active voice it sounds like you broke it on purpose.

  • 1 decade ago

    You are completely right!

    Source(s): I'm Mexican
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